Hi.
I'm reading this paper (DOI: 10.1126/science.1075090 , http://science.sciencemag.org/content/298/5594/799 ) and trying to figure out the way they have worked. Till now I'm stacked at Figure 2. I cannot understand how they get such numbers to setup the Fig 2A plot.
As they wrote, they had 106 yeast strains, and each one of them has a different TF (transcription factor) tagged with an epitope. So let's say that we IP the first strain and run the microarray assay. What I'm expecting to get is the number of regions my first tagged TF associated with. If i'm gonna do this for all the strains i would expect something like this (e.g):
TF001 : associated with 1000 regions
TF002 : associated with 600 regions
TF003 : associated with 1894 regions
and so on and forth until TF106.
If I'm right till now, how could a process like that, result in such a plot as show in Fig 2A? I mean, that in their plot it seems that they count somehow the number of sequences that are associated with 1 , 2 , 3... number of TFs. How is this possible without using a sequencing method ? It seems like they say "with only one TF 1000+ regions associated, with 2 TF 1000- regions associated ... no matter which TF was"
As a result i cannot understand what also the red line with white circles is saying as also and the Fig 2B seems very strange.
If anyone has already read that paper or have an idea on that method, is pleased to give out his lights :-)
Perhaps it's just me, but I think it's quicker if you share a link than sharing a DOI. Or maybe share both for people who don't like to click on unknown links.
Ok. I'm sorry. I edit the main post and added the link you asked.