This question arose when I read the following science paper
The chromatin accessibility landscape of primary human cancers, 10.1126/science.aav1898
As shown in the figure below (A and E), the tumor samples from a single donor sequenced using WGS and ATAC-seq display different variant allele frequency. From their paper, I did not find out whether WGS and ATAC-seq sequenced the tumor samples of the same TCGA sample UUID. (1) If the sample UUIDs is the same, how can WGS and ATAC-seq get different VAF. If this is possible, it's technical error. This does not convey any biological meaning; (2) If sample UUIDs are different, it's just sampling bias, without any biological sense neither.
Am I wrong? Could anybody help me?
Thanks ATpoint for your great answer.