Hi All
I did ChipSeq analysis using both Bowtie2 and BWA mem. The peaks were called taking IGG as control. After calling peaks I see one trend, Replicates 2 (marked by -2) don't have even half the number of peaks as compared to replicate 1 (marked by -1).
This is weird because biological replicates must have relatively equal number of peaks
Alignment with BWA
Sample No. of Peaks
- HTH3 87299
- HTK27AC-1 11196
- HTK27AC-2 428
- HTK27ME3-1 35341
- HTK27ME3-2 10286
- HTK4ME1-1 93845
- HTK4ME1-2 1420
Alignment with Bowtie2
Sample No. of peaks
- HTH3 17944
- HTK27AC-1 6259
- HTK27AC-2 465
- HTK27ME3-1 20044
- HTK27ME3-2 7773
- HTK4ME1-1 9600
- HTK4ME1-2 761
Is it normal to see this trend. I referred to the literature bit I see people mention more common peaks between biological replicates and at the same time relatively same no. of peaks.
Hi,
Is there any reference for this statement? IMO, poor quality must depend on IP efficiency or antibody quality or general lib. preparation steps but not on what histone modifications are pulled down.
I cannot give any reference, but this is what I typically experience in multiple murine and human primary datasets I analyzed. I guess this is due to the antibody in combination with low(er) input material as samples I've seen this were always ex vivo from primary donors. In these low-input primary data H3K27ac FRiPs were typically 1-5%, with less than 10k callable peaks. In contrast we produced the same data from comparable cell lines with millions of cells as starting material giving FRiPs of 10-30%, so I cannot fully blame the antibody for it, probably a combination of low input, antibody quality, protocol, sequencing depth etc.
What "all conditions" are you referring to? How can I make the count matrix? Please give some hint as I am new to the Chipseq analysis. Something like this ?