Entering edit mode
2.9 years ago
peter
▴
20
I am reading an article:
In this article, authors mention and I quote 'pathogenic variants with allele frequencies greater than 0.01% were well characterized in publications and included many founder mutations.'
I want to make if I understand allele frequency correct. Does allele frequency greater than 0.01% means variants for whom the alternative allele count is greater than 1 so that 0.01 * 100 and if we have an allele frequency of 0.1% then that refers to alternative allele count as 10. Is this interpretation correct? Insights will be appreciated.
If you have an autosomal gene, 0.01% means one allele per 10000 is affected. 1 alternative allele per 5000 persons. 1 person with heterozygous variant per 5000 or 1 person out of 10000 with a homozygous variant.
Thank you. It makes sense now.