Does larger standardized PRS value always means higher risk?

Question

[curious]

I made some PRS for asthma and generated a plot like the one shown here for risk score distribution:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polygenic_score

Like the image above, I see the separation in PRS distributions between cases and controls, but its the reverse of the trend in the image above where asthma cases have the lower mean standardized PRS compared to controls. Pretty sure I simply flipped effect allele or something like that somewhere in my pipeline, but just asking first does higher PRS value always mean higher risk?

I would kind of think so b/c the definition: "(PRS)... typically calculated as a weighted sum of trait-associated alleles"