For Fst which is HT-HS/HT, HT stands for expected average heterozygosity in the meta population and HS stands for expected average heterozygosity in the sub population.
As I understand it, HT is the heterozygosity assuming that all of the sub populations are from the same population and if it's true, there would be no gap with HS(if it's Hardy Weinberg equilibrium)
Than why is it divided again with HT, is it some kind of standardization? I don't think it's necessary is it?
Why can't it be used like heterozygosity of meta population(variation of meta population)/heterozygosity of sub populations (variation of sub populations) somewhat like F value of F test.
and also why is it done with expected heterozygosity, not with observed heterozygosity