I've been checking dbSNP database and I found in a large population sample like ALFA project, the reference allele frequency appears to be much lower than the alternative allele frequency for some SNPs i.e. rs3130253.
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/snp/rs3130253
Typically, one might expect the reference allele to be more prevalent, so this seems weird to me. Could anyone shed light on potential reasons or mechanisms that could explain why a large portion of a population might exhibit a higher frequency of an alternative allele over the reference allele? Thanks
So your question is why is the reference allele at times occurring in lower frequencies than the alternate allele?
Not exactly. Besides the technical explanations given in the comments below, the frequencies of alleles segregating in a population change over time due to various factors (drift, linkage disequilibrium, natural selection, sweeps etc). So the reference allele (a single nucleotide observed at a certain position in the "reference" genome) could have changed in frequency in different populations owing to many factors.